Thursday, April 1, 2010

Error's in the Bible about marriage?

So I was googling the age of marriage in the bible (I found out from Christian sites there isn't one) and came across the site "Got Questions", a Q and A for Christians. I've asked them questions before and apparently chose not to respond after the first question (Do christians have to follow the Old testament and which Testament leads to paradise?) for which they only partly answered, and it was the most ambiguous thing I'd ever seen (after the bible).
So what got my attention was these alleged "scholars" answering a questioner on dating (dating is allowed in Christianity). What they said was Christians should only date/marry Christians and not non-christians (or "unbelievers" in their words). They cited verses 2 Corinthians 6:14-15 for this and it seems like they're correct. But have a look the verse here:

Wives, in the same way be submissive to your husbands so that, if any of them do not believe the word, they may be won over without words by the behavior of their wives,
(1 Peter 3:1)

Any other translation can be seen here:
All of the translations have the same meaning. One cannot be considered a "Christian" if he doesn't believe in the words of the bible, correct?
The verse clearly says women can marry non-christians! An obvious contradiction.

Now if we look at another verse:

1 Corinthians 7:39- A woman is bound to her husband as long as he lives. But if her husband dies, she is free to marry anyone she wishes, but he must belong to the Lord

Honestly what is going through Paul's head? All of a sudden now a woman is forced to marry a Christian?? But wait, lets see an Old Testament verse, which Jesus is also the God of:

"If two brothers are living together on the same property and one of them dies without a son, his widow may not be married to anyone from outside the family. Instead, her husband's brother should marry her and have intercourse with her to fulfill the duties of a brother-in-law." (Deuteronomy 25:5)

So now this contradicts 1 Corinthians 7:39 where widows apparently, must marry the husband's brother. Why is Jesus doing this? Does this really make sense of his revelations being in contradictory of eachother?

There's one other verse from the OT I'd like to discuss:

"If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, he shall pay the girl's father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the girl, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives." (Deuteronomy 22:28-29)

Right here we see a rapist, who can be from any faith, must marry the woman. Puzzled? It is after all the Bible.

No comments: